TSAC-F practice test, every domain mixed

To improve cognitive resilience, an instructor integrates stress-inoculation training. Which method BEST applies graded exposure without causing negative training transfer?

1. Maximal physical penalties for wrong answers
   Harsh punishment for errors teaches avoidance and fear rather than controlled performance under stress.
2. Full operational loads before skill mastery
   Maximal stress before basic skills are learned leads to failure and negative transfer.
3. Removing peer debriefs to force toughness
   Debriefs consolidate learning; removing them takes away feedback and recovery rather than building resilience.
4. Continuous sleep deprivation for the block
   Continuous sleep loss is overwhelming, not graded, and impairs the learning the drill is meant to build.
5. Adding math tasks in small steps under duress
   Graded exposure means stress rises in small, controlled steps so coping skills are practiced and succeed at each level before the next.

For a night-shift SWAT operator, how should macronutrients be optimally timed to sustain high-intensity capacity and alertness while avoiding gastrointestinal distress?

1. Carbohydrate saved for after the shift
   Saving carbohydrate for after the shift leaves high-intensity work under-fueled.
2. Protein before tasks, heavy fat afterward
   Protein alone does not fuel intense work, and heavy fat meals sit poorly overnight.
3. Carbohydrate before tasks, protein in recovery
   Carbohydrate before high-intensity work fuels it and digests easily, and protein afterward supports repair, a pattern that fits a night shift.
4. Equal macronutrient ratios eaten every three hours
   Fixed equal ratios ignore what the upcoming task needs and can put fat-heavy food right before intense work.
5. High-fat meals before tasks, carbs after
   Fat digests slowly and can cause GI distress before intense tasks.

When designing a brief, scenario-based nutrition training for unit commanders, which combination of topics should be prioritized to mitigate immediate physiological risks?

1. Hypertrophy timing and carbohydrate loading
   Hypertrophy and carb-loading details are performance refinements, not immediate safety risks.
2. Periodization for offseason endurance
   Offseason endurance planning is theory with no immediate risk to address.
3. Interpreting bone density scans
   Interpreting DXA scans is a clinical task outside a nutrition briefing for commanders.
4. Low energy availability and stimulant risks
   Underfueling and stimulant misuse can cause acute harm in the field, so they are the priorities for a short briefing to leaders.

A firefighter conducts a 2-hour drill in high heat, drinking 250 mL of water every 15 minutes of the continuous activity. What is the total intake?

1. 1.75 L
   1.75 L is seven drinks; it misses one 15-minute block.
2. 2.00 L
   Two hours hold eight 15-minute blocks, and 8 x 250 mL = 2,000 mL, or 2.00 L (1 L per hour).
3. 4.50 L
   That would be more than 2 L per hour, above the Army's hourly cap of 1.5 quarts (about 1.4 L).
4. 1.25 L
   1.25 L is five drinks, which covers only 75 minutes.
5. 3.25 L
   3.25 L would be thirteen drinks, more than the eight that fit in two hours.

Based on the firefighter task profile provided, which proposed test battery ensures comprehensive content validity while avoiding physical assessment redundancies?

1. Step-test, maximal run, shuttle test
   Three aerobic or running tests overlap one another and leave the drag and carry uncovered.
2. Vertical jump, push-ups, sit-and-reach
   These are generic fitness tests that do not map onto the drag, carry or stair-climb demands.
3. Sled pull, 1RM deadlift, vertical jump
   Three strength-power tests overlap and leave aerobic capacity for stair climbing unmeasured.
4. Farmer's walk, 1RM squat, bench press
   The carry is covered, but two maximal strength tests miss the drag's power and the stair climb's aerobic demand.
5. Sled pull, farmer's walk, step-test
   Each test mirrors one task quality once: a sled pull for the drag's anaerobic power, a farmer's walk for carry endurance and a step test for the stair climb's aerobic demand.

Training staff are debating between a 20-meter multistage fitness test and a fully geared 400-meter suspect pursuit simulation for 500 recruits. Why select the multistage test?

1. Translates directly to field readiness
   The geared pursuit simulation, not the shuttle test, is closer to field demands.
2. Better ecological validity for pursuit
   The pursuit simulation has the stronger ecological validity; that is the shuttle test's weakness.
3. Easy to run for 500 recruits
   A multistage shuttle test needs little equipment and can test many recruits at once, which matters for 500 people.
4. Removes the need for remediation
   Any test can identify recruits who need remediation; choosing one does not remove that need.

Command mandates raising the recruit physical test threshold to eliminate all field failures, ignoring wash-out rates. What is the primary operational flaw in this approach?

1. Clears more recruits who cannot do the job
   A higher threshold clears fewer people who cannot do the job, not more.
2. Fails many recruits who could do the job
   Pushing the cut score high enough to remove every field failure also rejects many capable recruits, which raises wash-out and recruiting costs.
3. Depends on arbitrary standard deviations
   The proposal sets the cut by field outcomes, not by standard deviations.
4. Relies on civilian normative rankings
   Nothing in the plan involves civilian norms; the issue is where the cut is set.

An operator currently performs a 50-meter loaded carry with 20 kg. If progressing mass by 10% and distance by 20%, what are the new parameters?

1. 24.0 kg mass and 55.0 meters distance
   The percentages are swapped: 20 % on the load and 10 % on the distance.
2. 22.0 kg mass and 65.0 meters distance
   The load is right, but 65 m is a 30 % distance increase.
3. 20.0 kg mass and 70.0 meters distance
   Load is unchanged, and distance rises 40 %, not 20 %.
4. 22.0 kg mass and 60.0 meters distance
   10 % of 20 kg adds 2 kg, and 20 % of 50 m adds 10 m.
5. 25.0 kg mass and 60.0 meters distance
   The distance is right, but adding 5 kg is a 25 % load increase.

A facility aims to establish small-team training windows that maximize peer accountability. Based on the shift overlap table provided, which 60-minute scheduling window allows members from the Assault and Support teams to train simultaneously while avoiding their on-duty shifts and protected rest blocks?

1. 22:30 session
   Assault's protected rest block has already started at 22:00.
2. 13:00 session
   Both teams are on duty at 13:00.
3. 21:30 session
   The session runs to 22:30, cutting into Assault's protected rest that starts at 22:00.
4. 08:30 session
   Assault is on shift from 06:00 to 14:00.
5. 19:00 session
   From 19:00 to 20:00 Assault is off shift (ends 14:00) and before its 22:00 rest block, and Support is off shift (ends 18:00) and before its 00:00 rest block.

An operator covers 400 unloaded meters in 90 seconds. To match duty pacing with a 30 kg load, running speed must decrease by 25%. What is the new target time?

1. 135.0 s
   135 s means about a one-third drop in speed, not 25 %.
2. 150.0 s
   150 s corresponds to 60 % of the original speed, a 40 % decrease.
3. 112.5 s
   This adds 25 % to the time (90 x 1.25); a 25 % slower speed lengthens the time by a third.
4. 120.0 s
   At 75 % of the original speed, 400 m takes 90 / 0.75 = 120 s.
5. 67.5 s
   This shortens the time, which would require running faster.

Transitioning a drill to Level A PPE requires decreasing the 120-second work interval by 20% and increasing the 240-second rest interval by 50%. What is the new work-to-rest ratio?

1. 96 s : 360 s
   Work 120 x 0.8 = 96 s and rest 240 x 1.5 = 360 s.
2. 144 s : 360 s
   Rest is right, but 144 s lengthens work by 20 % instead of shortening it.
3. 150 s : 240 s
   This lengthens work by 25 % and leaves rest unchanged, the reverse of the PPE adjustment.
4. 96 s : 480 s
   Work is right, but 480 s doubles the rest instead of adding 50 %.
5. 120 s : 360 s
   Rest is right, but work was not shortened.

Based on the operator profiles provided, which programming strategy best individualizes training to accommodate the differing physiological and operational recovery capacities?

1. Fewer and flexible sessions for Operator X
   Irregular 24-hour shifts leave X with unpredictable, often reduced recovery, so fewer sessions that can move around the roster fit, while X's training age still allows demanding sessions.
2. Identical microcycles for both operators
   One microcycle for both ignores large differences in training age, role and shift load.
3. Matched intensity protocols for both
   A novice and a veteran should not share intensity prescriptions.
4. More frequent sessions for Operator X
   Higher frequency collides with irregular 24-hour shifts and limited recovery.
5. A fixed daily schedule for Operator X
   A fixed daily slot cannot survive an irregular 24-hour roster.

A heavy rescue team's 12-week macrocycle progresses directly from bilateral hops to depth jumps. Which missing competency gate invalidates this plyometric progression?

1. Controlled landings at low intensity
   Depth jumps impose high landing forces, so control in simple, low-intensity landings must be shown before them.
2. Maximal eccentric hamstring strength
   Eccentric hamstring strength helps, but it is not the gate for landing mechanics.
3. High-velocity multidirectional sprinting
   Sprint ability is a separate quality from landing control.
4. Maximal bilateral jump height
   Jumping high says nothing about absorbing a landing safely.
5. Mastery of high-repetition bounding
   High-repetition bounding is itself an intermediate plyometric, not the basic landing competency.

Why is replacing standing exercises with a seated machine regression ineffective for a law enforcement officer struggling with core stability during ruck marches?

1. Increases required articular range
   Machines usually restrict range rather than increase it.
2. Restricts glenohumeral joint mobility
   Shoulder mobility is unrelated to trunk stability during rucking.
3. Removes the trunk-stability demand
   Seated, supported machines take over the stabilizing work, so the officer stops training the trunk control that fails under a ruck.
4. Shifts the physiological energy system
   Both versions are resistance exercise; the energy system is not the issue.
5. Reduces lower extremity involvement
   Less leg work is a side effect, but the core-stability problem comes from removing trunk demand.

An under-recovered unit considers purchasing hyperbaric chambers to improve readiness, though personnel average 5 hours of sleep. Which action should the facilitator prioritize FIRST?

1. Introduce daily cryotherapy sessions
   Cryotherapy can ease soreness but does not repay sleep debt.
2. Improve sleep before buying recovery tech
   Five hours of sleep is the main recovery deficit; no device substitutes for it, so sleep comes before costly modalities.
3. Implement hyperbaric oxygen therapy
   Hyperbaric oxygen has little support as a recovery tool for healthy personnel and ignores the sleep problem.
4. Prescribe non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
   Prescribing medication is outside the facilitator's scope, and routine NSAID use can impair tissue adaptation.
5. Schedule routine intravenous hydration
   IV hydration is a medical procedure, not a routine recovery strategy.

A tactical unit under high operational stress asks about vitamin and mineral supplements to boost immune function. When is supplementation most clearly warranted?

1. When a deficiency has been identified
   Extra vitamins and minerals help when intake or status is low; without a documented deficiency, supplements add cost and risk with little benefit.
2. After members report feeling tired
   Fatigue has many causes; it should prompt evaluation, not automatic supplementation.
3. Whenever the unit deploys to high altitude
   Altitude changes some nutrient needs, but supplementation should follow an assessed need, not the destination.
4. Throughout any period of sustained operations
   Operational stress alone does not establish a deficiency.
5. As a daily preventive for every member
   Blanket supplementation treats people with adequate status and has not been shown to boost immunity in them.

Beyond enhancing muscular power, why might creatine monohydrate supplementation benefit a sleep-deprived tactical team during prolonged operations?

1. Speeds local healing of injured tissue
   Creatine is not an established tissue-healing aid.
2. Raises maximal aerobic capacity in trained users
   Creatine supports short, high-intensity efforts and does not raise VO2max.
3. Sharpens visual acuity during night work
   There is no evidence that creatine improves visual acuity.
4. Works as a central nervous system stimulant
   Creatine is not a stimulant; it works through phosphocreatine energy stores, not arousal.
5. Blunts some cognitive decline under sleep loss
   Creatine raises brain creatine stores, and sleep-deprivation studies suggest it can blunt declines in some cognitive tasks, though the evidence is still limited.

Load-carriage research shows that where a load sits changes its energy cost. Compared with adding 1 kg to a rucksack, adding 1 kg to the boots does what?

1. Has no measurable effect on cost
   Footwear mass has a clear, measurable cost, which is why boot weight matters on long marches.
2. Raises energy cost several times more
   Each kilogram on the feet raises energy expenditure by roughly 7-10 %, several times the cost of the same mass carried on the trunk.
3. Costs less, since the legs are strong
   Leg strength does not offset the extra work of swinging heavier feet thousands of times.
4. Raises energy cost by about the same
   Mass on the feet must be accelerated with every stride, so it costs far more than mass on the back.

Before a body-composition check, a soldier reports skipping meals for days and using laxatives to 'make weight.' What is the facilitator's most appropriate action?

1. Write a short-term weight-cut meal plan
   Prescribing a weight-cut diet is outside the facilitator's scope and reinforces the behavior.
2. Keep it confidential and monitor alone
   Watching quietly delays care for a potentially serious problem; the facilitator's role is to refer.
3. Add extra conditioning sessions this week
   More exercise deepens the energy deficit and adds dehydration risk.
4. Refer to a medical provider promptly
   Fasting and laxative use are warning signs of disordered eating and dangerous weight cutting, which call for referral to a physician and registered dietitian rather than coaching alone.

In the lateral-shuffle lane of the Army's sprint-drag-carry, which movement breaks the event standard?

1. Staying low with a wide base
   A low, wide stance is good shuffle technique and breaks no rule.
2. Crossing the feet during the shuffle
   The standard requires a side-step shuffle in which the feet do not cross; crossing turns it into a run and is a fault.
3. Facing the same way down and back
   Facing the same direction down and back is what the standard requires.
4. Pausing briefly at the turn line
   A brief pause at the turn costs time but breaks no rule.

When the Army Fitness Test (AFT) replaced the ACFT as the test of record on June 1, 2025, which event was removed?

1. Hand-release push-up
   The hand-release push-up stayed in the AFT.
2. Sprint-drag-carry
   The sprint-drag-carry stayed in the AFT.
3. Standing power throw
   The AFT dropped the standing power throw, citing limited value for readiness and overuse-injury risk, which leaves five events.
4. Three-rep max deadlift
   The three-repetition maximum deadlift remains the AFT's first event.

Throughout the IAFF/IAFC Candidate Physical Ability Test (CPAT), candidates wear a 50 lb vest. What does the vest represent?

1. Extra load to help rank candidates
   CPAT is pass/fail within 10 minutes 20 seconds, so the vest is not there to rank candidates.
2. The hose pack carried on the stairs
   The hose pack is simulated by an extra 25 lb (two 12.5 lb weights) added only for the stair climb.
3. The firefighter's protective gear
   The 50 lb vest simulates the weight of a self-contained breathing apparatus and protective clothing, so every event is done under a realistic load.
4. A share of a victim's body weight
   The rescue event uses a separate mannequin drag; the vest is worn the whole test.

In the Army's hand-release push-up, what must happen at the bottom of every repetition?

1. Hips lowered while the chest stays up
   Sagging hips with the chest up is a form fault, not the required bottom position.
2. Knees placed down to reset the body
   Dropping to the knees breaks the straight-body position the event requires.
3. Elbows bent to 90° with chest raised
   Stopping at 90° elbow flexion is a standard push-up depth, not a hand-release repetition.
4. Chest on the ground and hands lifted
   Each repetition goes all the way down to lie on the chest and lift the hands off the ground before pushing back up, which removes partial-range repetitions.

A soldier is reclassifying from a support specialty into one of the Army's combat specialties. Which Army Fitness Test standard will apply?

1. A 350-point minimum scored by sex
   The point floor is right, but combat standards are scored sex-neutral.
2. A sex-neutral 350-point minimum
   The 21 combat specialties test against a sex-neutral combat standard: at least 350 total points and 60 in each event.
3. The same 300-point general minimum
   300 points with 60 per event is the minimum for the other specialties, not combat roles.
4. No minimum, only a ranked score
   The AFT sets minimum totals and a 60-point floor in every event.

Crews use a fire station's weight room at all hours with no staff present. Which policy best supports safe use?

1. Require an orientation before solo use
   An orientation on posted rules, equipment use and emergency steps prepares crews to train safely when no facilitator is present.
2. Post the hours and let anyone train
   Open access with no rules or orientation leaves safe use to chance.
3. Remove the free weights from the room
   Removing free weights sacrifices training that transfers to the job instead of managing the risk.
4. Let crews spot each other as they choose
   Informal spotting without rules or orientation does not ensure safe practice.

A unit trains in the heat for several days in a row. Besides cooling during rest breaks, which measure does TB MED 507 suggest for the cumulative heat load?

1. Salt tablets with each meal
   The bulletin does not recommend salt tablets, which can cause stomach upset; food normally covers sodium.
2. Air-conditioned sleeping quarters
   Heat stress from prior days can accumulate, and cool sleeping quarters, when available, help the body recover between hot training days.
3. Training later in the hottest hours
   Moving work into the hottest hours adds heat load instead of relieving it.
4. Extra fluid beyond the hourly cap
   Drinking past the 1.5-quart hourly cap raises hyponatremia risk rather than offsetting cumulative heat.

In the work/rest tables of TB MED 507, what does a 'rest' period mean?

1. Light marching at a reduced pace
   Marching, even slowly, keeps producing metabolic heat, so it does not count as rest.
2. Equipment maintenance in the sun
   Maintenance work in full sun adds both activity and solar heat load.
3. Sitting or standing in shade if possible
   The tables define rest as minimal physical activity, sitting or standing, done in shade when possible; the work/rest ratios only hold if rest really is rest.
4. Mobility drills between work bouts
   Mobility drills are light exercise, not the minimal activity the tables assume.

TB MED 507 notes that exertional heat illness often strikes at a time other than the hottest part of the day. When?

1. During the cool-down after work ends
   The bulletin's point concerns the start of exertion, not the period after work.
2. On rest days between training sessions
   Exertional heat illness requires exertion; rest days are not the noted risk point.
3. Overnight, after the training day
   Overnight hours without exertion are not when exertional heat illness typically begins.
4. At the start of exercise in the heat
   The bulletin notes that exertional heat illness often occurs at the initiation of exercise in the heat, so monitoring starts with the first effort, not at peak temperature.

During an 8-week U.S. Army Ranger course with chronic energy deficit, which body component showed the largest proportional loss?

1. Total body water, by about a third
   Body water was not the component with the largest reported loss; fat mass was.
2. Bone mineral content, by about a fifth
   Bone changes over 8 weeks are small; the large loss was in fat mass.
3. Fat mass, reduced by about half
   Fat mass fell by roughly 50 % while body mass fell about 13 % and fat-free mass about 6 %, showing how deep the energy deficit was.
4. Fat-free mass, reduced by about half
   Fat-free mass fell, but only by about 6 %, far less than fat mass.

A loaded foot march requires 2.4 L/min of oxygen, and a soldier's VO2max is 3.2 L/min. Using FM 7-22's relative-workload guidance, how sustainable is this march for the soldier?

1. 75 %, too high to sustain for long
   2.4 / 3.2 = 75 % of VO2max; FM 7-22 notes that work above about 70 % cannot be continued for long and needs more recovery.
2. 60 %, sustainable for a long march
   60 % would need an oxygen cost of about 1.9 L/min, not 2.4 L/min.
3. 133 %, beyond the soldier's capacity
   This divides capacity by demand (3.2 / 2.4); the march uses 75 % of capacity, not more than all of it.
4. 75 %, sustainable for a long march
   The percentage is right, but FM 7-22 puts prolonged work in the 50-70 % range, below this march.

FM 7-22 suggests adding short bouts of 8-count T push-ups during ruck marches. What occupational movement are they meant to replicate?

1. Climbing over a wall or obstacle
   Obstacle climbing needs pulling and hip drive, not the floor-to-standing pattern of the push-up.
2. Getting into and out of prone firing positions
   The manual lists 3-5 second rushes and 8-count T push-ups during the march to rehearse dropping to and rising from the prone under load.
3. Lifting a casualty onto a stretcher
   Casualty lifting is a different task; the drop-to-prone pattern is what the push-up rehearses.
4. Carrying ammunition cans uphill
   Carrying loads uphill is a carry task, not a drop-and-rise movement.

Which FM 7-22 endurance activity is described as also improving the ability to stop, start and change direction?

1. Release run
   Release runs combine formation running with a faster individual segment, not direction changes.
2. Unit formation run
   Formation runs keep unit integrity at one time and distance, with steady running.
3. Ability group run
   Ability group runs are steady runs and do not train stopping, starting or turning.
4. Terrain run
   Terrain runs go through training areas, over hills and around obstacles, so they add stopping, starting and direction changes to endurance work.

In the drag lane of the Army's sprint-drag-carry, how does the soldier move the 90 lb sled?

1. Pushes it forward from a low stance
   The event standard is a backward drag, not a sled push.
2. Grips the handles and drags it backward
   The soldier grasps the sled handles and drags it backward across the 25 m line, so training should rehearse a low, backward drag.
3. Pulls it with a harness while running
   No harness is used; the soldier holds the handles.
4. Drags it forward with straps on the shoulders
   The sled is dragged backward by the handles, not hauled forward over the shoulders.

FM 7-22 sums up the essential elements of running skill in three words. Which are they?

1. Heel, roll, toe
   A heel-to-toe roll describes walking gait, not the manual's running model.
2. Reach, land, push
   Reaching forward and pushing off is not how the manual frames running skill.
3. Pose, fall, pull
   The manual teaches running as a skill built on a dominant running pose, a forward fall and an active pull of the support foot from the ground.
4. Lift, drive, extend
   These describe a knee-drive cue set, not the FM 7-22 running model.

Which weekly scheduling rule does FM 7-22 give for a ruck-march training block?

1. No long march, run or heavy legs on consecutive days
   Long marches, endurance runs and heavy leg sessions all load the same tissues, so spacing them out lets the legs recover between hard exposures.
2. Long runs and marches on the same day
   Pairing long runs and marches on one day concentrates the lower-body load.
3. Heavy leg strength, then a march the next day
   Heavy leg work right before a march leaves the legs fatigued for the march.
4. Ruck on consecutive days to build tolerance
   Back-to-back marches stack lower-body loading without recovery.

In FM 7-22's ruck-marching guidance, above what pack load should load increases be made with particular caution?

1. 30 percent of body weight
   The manual flags loads above 30 % of body weight as the point where further increases need caution, since injury risk climbs with heavy relative loads.
2. 50 percent of body weight
   50 % is far past the point where the manual already urges caution.
3. 10 percent of body weight
   10 % is a light starting load, well below the caution threshold.
4. 70 percent of body weight
   70 % of body weight is an extreme load, well beyond the threshold.

Under FM 7-22, how are rehabilitation and reconditioning divided after a soldier's injury?

1. Medical providers own both phases end to end
   Reconditioning is explicitly unit-owned, not run by medical providers.
2. Rehab is unit-run; reconditioning is medical
   This reverses the roles the manual assigns.
3. Medical providers own rehab; the unit owns reconditioning
   Rehabilitation is developed and overseen by medical providers; once its goals are met, reconditioning is a unit-run program by H2F trainers, with providers and trainers communicating.
4. The unit owns both rehab and reconditioning
   Rehabilitation is a medical program; the unit takes over only at reconditioning.

A team expects severe sleep restriction on an upcoming mission. What does FM 7-22 recommend in the nights before it?

1. Train on short sleep to build tolerance
   The manual states plainly that people cannot train themselves to perform better on less sleep.
2. Keep normal sleep and rely on caffeine later
   Caffeine helps, but banking sleep beforehand is the step the manual recommends first.
3. Cut sleep now to get used to the deficit
   Restricting sleep before the mission adds debt instead of building a reserve.
4. Bank sleep by extending time in bed nightly
   Soldiers cannot train to perform better on less sleep, but extending time in bed beyond 8 hours for several nights builds a reserve that sustains alertness during later sleep loss.

After a unit adds embedded performance staff, recorded injuries rise during the first months. What explanation does FM 7-22 give?

1. Records were inflated to justify the staff
   The manual treats the rise as a typical detection effect, not a reporting distortion.
2. More injuries are now identified and recorded
   Embedded staff now identify, diagnose, record and treat injuries soldiers used to manage themselves, so the injury rate first rises before it falls.
3. Soldiers are training less than before
   Participation is not what drives the early rise in recorded injuries.
4. The new program itself is causing injuries
   An early rise reflects better detection; the manual expects rates to fall as the program matures.

A platoon of widely mixed running fitness needs aerobic training. Which FM 7-22 format best organizes it?

1. A release run with no pace groups
   A release run starts in formation and does not sort soldiers by ability.
2. Individual runs with no supervision
   Unsupervised individual runs give up the structure and oversight of group training.
3. Ability group runs of near-equal ability
   Ability group runs place soldiers in groups of near-equal ability, so each group trains at a suitable intensity while staying organized and supervised.
4. One unit formation run at a single pace
   A single pace is too easy for the fittest and too hard for the least fit.

Soldiers come off a night shift that ends around 0700. Which measure does FM 7-22 suggest to reduce the risk of the commute home?

1. Post-shift sleeping quarters or a ride home
   Around 0700 sleep-deprived workers are near a low point of circadian alertness, so post-shift quarters, transport home or shifts ending after about 0900 cut crash risk.
2. A short workout to raise alertness
   A workout gives at most a brief lift and adds fatigue.
3. Shift ends moved to 0500 instead
   0500 is still in the low-alertness phase of the circadian rhythm, so it does not solve the problem.
4. A fast-acting energy drink before driving
   Stimulants can mask sleepiness briefly but do not remove the risk of microsleeps at the wheel.

In FM 7-22, what is the stated purpose of Military Movement Drills 1 and 2?

1. Build maximal leg strength under heavy load
   Bodyweight movement drills do not provide the heavy loading needed for maximal strength.
2. Prepare for vigorous running and build motor efficiency
   The manual lists these drills as dynamic preparation for more vigorous running that also develops motor efficiency, so they belong before running sessions.
3. Cool down and lower heart rate after runs
   Cooling down is the job of recovery activities, not these movement drills.
4. Test maximal sprint speed for the record
   They are preparatory drills, not a timed test of maximal speed.

FM 7-22 describes the 300 meter shuttle run as an indicator of which qualities?

1. Aerobic power, body fat and flexibility
   A short repeated-sprint shuttle is not a maximal aerobic test and says nothing about body fat or flexibility.
2. Upper-body power, grip and posture
   Running shuttles load the legs and energy systems, not upper-body power, grip or posture.
3. Muscular strength, hip mobility and balance
   Strength, mobility and balance are not what a timed shuttle run measures.
4. Anaerobic endurance, speed and agility
   The shuttle requires repeated sprints with changes of direction, so the manual treats it as an indicator of anaerobic endurance, speed and agility.

Under TB MED 507, which pre-training habit should be avoided entirely before training in a hot environment?

1. Eating a normal salted meal the night before
   Food supplies the sodium lost in sweat; a normal salted meal is encouraged, not avoided.
2. A cup of coffee at breakfast
   A moderate amount of caffeine from coffee does not meaningfully harm hydration, so it is not on the avoid list.
3. Drinking any alcohol-containing beverage
   The bulletin advises avoiding all alcohol-containing beverages when training in the heat, because alcohol can impair fluid balance and heat tolerance.
4. Drinking water before the session starts
   Starting hydrated is part of heat-illness prevention.

Why does TB MED 507 warn that aircrews can face more heat stress in the cockpit than ground crews on the ramp?

1. Shorter exposure during preflight checks
   Ground time before takeoff can be long, so exposure is not short.
2. Lower humidity inside the sealed cockpit
   Lower humidity would help evaporative cooling; it is not why the cockpit is hotter.
3. Little airflow and a greenhouse-like canopy
   Reduced air movement, the canopy's greenhouse effect, radiant heat and layered flight gear can push cockpit WBGT as much as 20 °F above ground level.
4. Cooler air drawn in by the engine intake
   The engine does not supply cool air to the crew before takeoff; the heat-soaked cockpit stays hot.

A member develops headache and nausea the day after the unit reaches 3,500 m. Under the Wilderness Medical Society's 2024 guidelines, what applies to further ascent?

1. Climb higher to speed acclimatization
   Going higher while symptomatic worsens hypoxia; it does not speed acclimatization.
2. Ascend if the symptoms are only mild
   The guidance applies to AMS of any severity, so mild symptoms still halt ascent.
3. Continue ascending at the planned rate
   Continuing the planned ascent with symptoms risks progression to severe altitude illness.
4. No higher until the symptoms resolve
   People with acute mountain sickness of any severity should stop ascending, resume only after symptoms resolve, and descend if symptoms worsen.

During continuous 24-hour operations, how should sleeping areas be organized according to FM 7-22?

1. Separated by the shift each soldier works
   Housing soldiers by shift keeps the waking activity of one shift from disturbing the sleep of another.
2. Mixed across shifts to build cohesion
   Mixing shifts guarantees that someone is always awake and moving while others try to sleep.
3. Assigned by rank regardless of shift
   Rank-based quarters ignore when people actually sleep, so off-shift noise disrupts sleepers.
4. Grouped by squad regardless of shift
   Squad grouping across shifts still puts sleepers next to people on a different schedule.

Which action ends a soldier's Army Fitness Test plank?

1. Shaking or trembling from maximal effort
   Trembling from maximal effort is expressly permitted.
2. Feet set up to a boot-width apart
   Feet may be up to a boot-width apart under the standard.
3. Switching from fists to palms during the hold
   Changing from fists to palms is allowed as long as the hands stay on the ground.
4. Raising a foot or hand off the floor
   The plank ends if a foot or hand leaves the floor, another body part touches down, or the straight line from head to heels is lost after one warning.

Which action is permitted in the Seated Power Throw of the Army's recruit OPAT?

1. Leaning back and forward to add distance
   The standard starts seated with legs extended and heels behind the line, pushes the ball up and away from the chest, and allows leaning backward and forward during the throw.
2. Setting the heels on or past the restraining line
   The heels must stay behind the restraining line.
3. Throwing from behind the head like a soccer throw-in
   The ball is pushed from the chest with both hands, not thrown from behind the head.
4. Bending the knees to sit with feet flat
   The start position requires the legs fully extended, not bent with feet flat.