NSCA CSCS practice test, both sections

During steady-state exercise, an athlete's respiratory exchange ratio (RER) is 0.95. Which fuel is providing MOST of the energy?

1. Mostly fat
   Mostly fat would give an RER near 0.70, far below 0.95.
2. Equal fat and carbohydrate
   An even split of fat and carbohydrate corresponds to an RER of about 0.85.
3. Mostly carbohydrate
   An RER of 0.95 is close to the 1.00 of pure carbohydrate use, so carbohydrate supplies most of the energy.

Compared with a muscle whose fibers run parallel to its line of pull, a muscle with a greater pennation angle is BEST suited to which function?

1. More force, less shortening speed
   Greater pennation packs more fibers side by side into the muscle, raising force while reducing how fast and far the tendon can be pulled.
2. More force and more shortening speed
   Fiber arrangement trades force against shortening speed, so one architecture cannot maximize both.
3. Less force, more shortening speed
   Less force and more speed describes a muscle with long parallel fibers, the opposite of a highly pennate one.

During the upward (concentric) phase of a standing dumbbell biceps curl, which muscle acts as the antagonist?

1. Brachialis
   The brachialis is a prime elbow flexor that helps lift the dumbbell, so it works with the movement, not against it.
2. Brachioradialis
   The brachioradialis also flexes the elbow and acts as a synergist in the curl.
3. Triceps brachii
   During the concentric curl the elbow flexes, so the triceps brachii, which extends the elbow, is the antagonist.

An athlete performs depth jumps to improve reactive ability. Which technique change MOST increases the stretch-shortening cycle's contribution to take-off?

1. A longer ground contact time
   Longer ground contact lets the stored elastic energy dissipate as heat before take-off.
2. A brief pause at the bottom
   A pause at the bottom breaks the link between the stretch and the push-off, which largely removes the stretch-shortening effect.
3. A shorter amortization phase
   Shortening the switch from landing to take-off keeps stored elastic energy and the stretch reflex from fading, so the stretch-shortening cycle contributes more.

Which shoulder movement and plane of motion are associated with the upward phase of the bent-over (rear-deltoid) lateral raise?

1. Horizontal adduction/transverse
   Horizontal adduction brings the arms toward the midline, which matches the lowering phase, not the raise.
2. Abduction/frontal
   Abduction in the frontal plane describes a standing lateral raise; bending over changes both the movement and the plane.
3. Horizontal abduction/transverse
   In the bent-over position, raising the arms out to the side moves them away from the midline in the transverse plane: horizontal abduction.

A football team completes a full program of progressive heat acclimatization before preseason. Which adaptation contributes MOST to the players' improved heat tolerance?

1. Decreased plasma volume
   Plasma volume expands with acclimatization; a decrease would make heat tolerance worse.
2. Higher sodium content of sweat
   Acclimatized athletes conserve sodium and produce more dilute sweat, so the sodium content goes down, not up.
3. Earlier and heavier sweating
   Acclimatization makes athletes start sweating sooner and sweat more, which increases evaporative cooling.

On a day when air temperature exceeds skin temperature, athletes perform conditioning outdoors. Which heat-loss mechanism is still available to cool them?

1. Convection to air
   Convection moves heat toward the cooler side, so air hotter than the skin adds heat to the body instead of removing it.
2. Evaporation of sweat
   When the air is hotter than the skin, the body gains heat by convection and radiation, so evaporation of sweat is the only route still cooling it.
3. Radiation to the surroundings
   Radiation also runs from warmer to cooler surroundings, so hot surroundings radiate heat into the athlete.

After 6 months of heavy resistance training, an athlete's quadriceps cross-sectional area has increased markedly. Which mechanism accounts for MOST of this increase?

1. Type I to type II conversion
   Type I fibers do not convert to type II with training, and fiber type changes would not account for a large rise in size.
2. Enlargement of existing fibers
   Training-induced growth comes mainly from existing fibers adding myofibrils and getting thicker (hypertrophy).
3. Formation of new muscle fibers
   Formation of new fibers (hyperplasia) makes at most a minor contribution to human muscle growth.

During a set of back squats with a progressively heavier load, in what order are the athlete's motor units recruited?

1. Small, low-threshold units first
   By the size principle, small, low-threshold motor units are recruited first, and larger units join as the force demand rises.
2. All units at once from the first rep
   Recruitment is graded with the load rather than all at once, even in the first rep.
3. Large, high-threshold units first
   Large, high-threshold units are added last, only when the force needed is high.

An athlete has slept 4–5 hours per night for a week, and countermovement jump height has fallen 8%. Within the strength and conditioning professional's scope, which sleep-hygiene recommendation is MOST appropriate first?

1. Consistent sleep and wake times
   Keeping the same bedtime and wake time every day stabilizes the body clock and is the first-line sleep-hygiene step.
2. Long naps late in the afternoon
   Long late-afternoon naps reduce sleep pressure and make it harder to fall asleep at night.
3. Catching up only on weekends
   Weekend catch-up sleep shifts the body clock and does not restore performance lost to weeknight sleep restriction.

A basketball team will fly east across three time zones for a tournament. Which pre-travel adjustment should the strength and conditioning professional recommend?

1. Go to bed 1 hour earlier each night
   Flying east means the destination clock is ahead, so going to bed earlier in the days before travel shifts the body clock in the right direction.
2. Keep the home bedtime until arrival
   Keeping the home bedtime leaves the whole three-hour shift to happen after arrival.
3. Stay awake the night before the flight
   Skipping a night's sleep adds sleep debt before competition and does not shift the body clock in a controlled way.
4. Go to bed 1 hour later each night
   Going to bed later moves the body clock the wrong way for eastward travel.

Two 13-year-old boys on the same soccer team differ greatly in height, muscularity and strength. The strength and conditioning professional wants to compare them by biological rather than chronological age. Which measure BEST reflects biological age?

1. Years of training
   Years of training describe training history, not physical maturation.
2. Body mass
   Body mass reflects size, diet and training, not how far along puberty a boy is, so two equally mature boys can differ widely in mass.
3. Tanner stage
   Tanner staging rates sexual maturation, so it reflects biological age and explains big differences between boys of the same age.

An athlete performs repeated sprints: 8 seconds of maximal effort followed by 90 seconds of rest, for 10 rounds. Which energy system predominates?

1. Fast glycolysis
   Fast glycolysis takes over as all-out efforts extend past roughly 10 seconds, so it is not the main source for 8-second bursts.
2. Oxidative system pathway
   The oxidative system rebuilds phosphocreatine during the rest periods, but it does not power the 8-second sprints themselves.
3. Slow glycolysis pathway
   Slow glycolysis leads into aerobic metabolism and supports longer, less intense work, not short maximal bursts.
4. Phosphagen system
   Eight-second all-out efforts rely mainly on the phosphagen system, and 90 seconds of rest lets phosphocreatine partly recover between rounds.
5. Aerobic lipolysis pathway
   Aerobic lipolysis (fat oxidation) is far too slow to supply energy for maximal 8-second efforts.

After several months of high-intensity explosive training, an athlete performs better on rapid force production tasks. Which neuromuscular adaptation is MOST directly responsible for the higher rate of force development?

1. Increased motor unit firing frequency
   Explosive training raises motor unit firing rate, which increases how quickly force rises at the start of a contraction.
2. Enhanced capillary density
   Capillary density is an aerobic adaptation that helps oxygen delivery, not rapid force production.
3. Greater slow-twitch fiber recruitment
   Slow-twitch fibers contract slowly, so relying on them more would lower the rate of force development.
4. Increased mitochondrial biogenesis
   More mitochondria improve aerobic endurance, not how quickly force can be produced.

When evaluating a group of athletes, which statistic BEST indicates how widely the scores are spread around the mean?

1. Mode
   The mode is the most frequent score and describes the center of the data, not its spread.
2. Standard deviation
   The standard deviation describes how far scores typically lie from the mean, so it shows the spread of the group's results.
3. Percentile rank
   A percentile rank places one athlete within the group but does not summarize how spread out the group is.
4. Coefficient of determination
   The coefficient of determination tells how much of the variation in one variable is explained by another, not the spread of a single set of scores.

A coach teaches the snatch by first practicing the first pull, then adding the second pull, then adding the catch until the full lift is performed. Which part-practice method is this?

1. Simplification
   Simplification keeps the whole lift but makes it easier, for example with a dowel instead of a loaded bar.
2. Segmentation
   Practicing the phases in order and adding each new phase to the earlier ones is segmentation, also called progressive-part practice.
3. Fractionization
   Fractionization separates parts that normally happen at the same time, such as arm and leg actions, not sequential phases.

During a pre-competition warm-up, an athlete's heart rate rises and she sweats noticeably. She says she feels ready, and her movements are sharp. How should the coach interpret these signs?

1. A normal response to warm-up exercise
   A rising heart rate and sweating are expected during a warm-up, and her readiness and sharp movement show no sign of a problem.
2. Somatic anxiety that needs relaxation
   Somatic anxiety would come with signs such as tension or trembling and worse movement, not a confident athlete moving well.
3. Early signs of exertional heat illness
   Heat illness would bring dizziness, confusion or poor coordination, none of which are present.

A gymnast practices imagery of her beam routine, but the image keeps showing her falling even though she tries to picture a clean landing. Which imagery quality should she work on?

1. Controllability
   An image that keeps turning into a fall despite her effort shows a lack of controllability, the ability to make the image do what she intends.
2. Imagery perspective
   Changing between first- and third-person views alters the viewpoint, not her ability to control the outcome of the image.
3. Vividness
   Vividness is how clear and detailed the image is, and her image is clear enough to show the fall.

A sport requires rapid visual scanning and split-second decisions. Which practice design MOST directly supports transfer to competition?

1. Blocked technical drills without opponents
   Blocked drills without opponents repeat one skill with no reading of the play, so they transfer little to decision-making.
2. Small-sided games with live opponents
   Small-sided games with live opponents include the scanning and decisions of real play, which practice needs for transfer.
3. Random technical drills without opponents
   Random drills add variety, but without opponents the athlete still never practices reading the game.

An athlete sets the goal "Increase my back squat 1RM by 10 kg (22 lb)." Which SMART criterion does this goal fail to meet?

1. Measurable
   A 10-kg gain on a 1RM is a number that can be tested, so the goal is measurable.
2. Specific
   The goal names one lift and one target, so it is specific.
3. Time-bound
   The goal names a specific lift and a measurable amount but no deadline, so it fails the time-bound criterion.

A coach compares three drinks for use during a 2-hour match: Beverage A has 17 g of carbohydrate in 250 mL, Beverage B has 30 g in 250 mL, and Beverage C has 5 g in 200 mL. Which drink BEST supports fluid absorption and energy delivery?

1. Beverage B
   Beverage B is 12% carbohydrate, concentrated enough to slow gastric emptying and fluid absorption.
2. Beverage C
   Beverage C is only 2.5% carbohydrate, which hydrates but delivers too little energy for a 2-hour match.
3. Beverage A
   Beverage A is 17 g ÷ 250 mL = 6.8% carbohydrate, inside the 6–8% range that empties from the gut quickly and supplies energy.

A collegiate wrestler must lose 8 lb (3.6 kg) to reach a lower weight class and wants to preserve strength and lean mass. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

1. Dehydration in the final 2 days
   Cutting weight through dehydration in the last 2 days impairs strength and heat tolerance and puts the athlete at risk.
2. Gradual loss of 1–2 lb per week
   Losing about 1–2 lb a week through a moderate deficit gives the body time to keep lean mass and strength.
3. Rapid loss of 4–5 lb per week
   Dropping 4–5 lb a week needs a severe deficit that strips muscle along with fat.

Immediately after a resistance training session, a 198-lb (90-kg) athlete wants a 30-g protein serving that BEST stimulates muscle protein synthesis. Which source should he choose?

1. Collagen
   Collagen lacks enough essential amino acids, especially leucine, to support building muscle protein.
2. Whey protein
   Whey is a complete, fast-digesting protein rich in leucine, so 30 g strongly stimulates muscle protein synthesis.
3. Branched-chain amino acids
   Branched-chain amino acids switch on the signal but lack the other essential amino acids needed to build new muscle protein.

A female distance runner's energy availability is calculated at 22 kcal/kg FFM per day. Alongside referral for medical and dietary support, which training modification is MOST appropriate?

1. Reduce total training volume
   Lowering training volume reduces exercise energy expenditure, which helps raise energy availability alongside eating more.
2. Replace runs with cycling
   Swapping runs for cycling changes the activity but not the energy spent, so energy availability stays low.
3. Keep the current training load
   Keeping the current load leaves her energy deficit unchanged.

A coach wants to increase trunk muscle activation while the athlete still produces high force. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

1. Machine crunches for isolated work
   Machine crunches isolate the trunk flexors without any high-force task to stabilize.
2. Heavy ground-based free weights
   Heavy ground-based lifts such as squats and deadlifts force the trunk to stabilize large loads, so trunk activation stays high while force output is high.
3. Light lifts on an unstable surface
   Unstable surfaces reduce the load and force the athlete can produce, which defeats the goal of high force.

Why should the bench press be performed before the triceps pushdown in the same session?

1. Fatigued triceps would limit bench loads
   The triceps assist the bench press, so tiring them first with pushdowns would limit how much can be pressed.
2. The bench press causes less fatigue
   The bench press is more demanding than the pushdown, not less, which is why it goes first while the athlete is fresh.
3. Single-joint lifts warm up the joint first
   Single-joint lifts are not the best warm-up for a multijoint lift and would fatigue the triceps before the main exercise.

A collegiate soccer player whose priority is strength and power must complete a resistance session and a conditioning run on the same day. Which arrangement is MOST appropriate?

1. Run first, lift 4 hours later
   Running first leaves residual fatigue that reduces strength and power output in the lifting session.
2. Lift first, run 30 min later
   Running only 30 minutes after lifting adds endurance work before recovery and increases the interference effect.
3. Lift first, run 6+ hours later
   Lifting first protects the priority, and a gap of six hours or more limits interference from the run.

An autoregulated strength mesocycle uses three accumulation weeks at a target RPE of 8–9 on core lifts, followed by an unloading week. Which week-4 prescription is MOST appropriate?

1. Fewer sets at a target RPE of 7–8
   An unloading week cuts volume and lowers effort, so fewer sets at a lower target RPE let fatigue dissipate.
2. Same sets at a target RPE of 8.5–9.5
   Keeping the same sets at a higher RPE adds intensity, so the athlete would not be unloading at all.
3. More sets at a target RPE of 6–7
   More sets keeps volume high even at a lower RPE, which undermines the purpose of the unloading week.

A weightlifter's front squat is programmed as 5 sets of 5 at 100 kg in week A and 3 sets of 10 at 80 kg in week B. Which statement about front squat volume load is correct?

1. The two weeks are equal
   The totals differ by 100 kg, so the weeks are not equal.
2. Week A is higher, by 100 kg
   Week A is 5 × 5 × 100 = 2,500 kg and week B is 3 × 10 × 80 = 2,400 kg, so week A is 100 kg higher.
3. Week B is higher, by 100 kg
   Week B has more reps, but its lighter load makes its volume load 100 kg lower, not higher.

A trained athlete's strength has plateaued on one set per exercise. Which change is MOST likely to produce further strength gains?

1. Multiple sets per exercise
   Trained athletes need more total volume to keep progressing, so moving to multiple sets per exercise drives further gains.
2. A single set with slower tempo
   Slowing the tempo of one set changes time under tension but does not add the volume a trained athlete needs.
3. A single set taken to failure
   Taking a single set to failure adds effort but not enough volume to match multiple sets.

An advanced powerlifter has just competed in the season's championship meet. The annual plan now enters the second transition period. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

1. 6–8 weeks of complete rest
   Six to eight weeks of complete rest causes unnecessary detraining.
2. Next week, begin a full-volume hypertrophy phase
   Starting a full-volume phase next week skips recovery after the peak and raises the risk of overtraining.
3. 1–4 weeks of light, varied active rest
   The second transition is 1–4 weeks of light, varied active rest for recovery without much detraining.

An athlete performs the power clean at 80% 1RM during a power phase, and the coach wants every repetition to be performed at high velocity. Which set structure is MOST appropriate?

1. Clusters of 2 reps with brief intra-set rest
   Cluster sets of 2 reps with short rests within the set limit fatigue, so every rep at 80% 1RM can be moved fast.
2. Supersets pairing the clean with a pull-up
   A superset with pull-ups adds work between clean sets and does not keep the clean itself fast.
3. Continuous sets of 6 reps with 3-minute rest
   Six continuous reps at 80% 1RM let fatigue slow the bar in the later reps, even with long rests between sets.

An athlete's current 5RM back squat is 100 kg. The program calls for a set of 3 at RPE 8 on the reps-in-reserve scale. Which load is MOST appropriate?

1. About 100 kg
   A set of 3 at RPE 8 leaves 2 in reserve, a 5-rep effort, so the athlete's current 5RM of about 100 kg fits.
2. About 110 kg
   About 110 kg is above the 5RM and closer to a 3RM, which would leave no reps in reserve.
3. About 90 kg
   About 90 kg is well below the 5RM, so a set of 3 would leave far more than 2 reps in reserve.

A soccer player cleared by the physician after a hamstring strain is ready to reintroduce sprinting. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

1. Full speed once walking is pain-free
   Pain-free walking is far below the demands of sprinting, so going straight to full speed risks reinjury.
2. Start with short maximal sprints
   Starting with maximal sprints loads the healing hamstring at top speed before it has been prepared.
3. Build from submaximal to maximal speed
   After a hamstring strain, sprinting returns in stages, building from submaximal to maximal speed as the athlete tolerates it.

A coach wants an Olympic weightlifting derivative that emphasizes high force production with loads above the athlete's power clean 1RM. Which exercise is MOST appropriate?

1. Hang power clean from the knee
   The hang power clean still has a catch, so its load is limited to what the athlete can receive.
2. Jump shrug
   The jump shrug is done with light loads at high speed, so it emphasizes velocity rather than heavy force.
3. Mid-thigh clean pull
   Pulling derivatives such as the mid-thigh clean pull have no catch, so they can be loaded above the power clean 1RM.

Why should heavy resistance training be included in a collegiate distance runner's program?

1. To substantially raise VO2max
   Resistance training has little effect on VO2max in distance runners.
2. To raise mitochondrial density
   Heavy lifting does not raise mitochondrial density; fiber growth can actually dilute it.
3. To improve running economy
   Heavy strength training improves running economy, so the runner uses less oxygen at a given pace.

During the first week of a new, much harder training program, an athlete's performance temporarily decreases because of soreness and fatigue. In Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome, which phase does this represent?

1. Exhaustion
   Exhaustion happens only when excessive stress continues without enough recovery, not in the first week.
2. Alarm
   A temporary dip in performance with soreness and fatigue at the start of a harder program is the alarm phase.
3. Resistance
   The resistance phase comes next, when the body adapts and performance recovers or improves.

A discus thrower performs the power clean to develop single-effort power. Which prescription is MOST appropriate?

1. 3 sets of 6–8 at 70% 1RM
   6–8 reps at 70% 1RM is a hypertrophy-type scheme that is too fatiguing for power cleans.
2. 3–5 sets of 3–5 at 75–85% 1RM
   3–5 reps at 75–85% 1RM is the guideline for multiple-effort power events, not a single throw.
3. 3–5 sets of 1–2 at 80–90% 1RM
   Single-effort power events such as throwing are trained with 1–2 reps at 80–90% 1RM.

A female high school athlete's knees collapse inward when she lands from box jumps. Which landing-training progression is MOST appropriate?

1. Depth jumps before box jumps
   Depth jumps are a high-intensity drill and come after box jumps, not before.
2. Bilateral drills before single-leg drills
   Landing on two feet spreads the load and is easier to control, so knee valgus is fixed on bilateral drills before single-leg work.
3. Single-leg drills before bilateral drills
   Single-leg landings are harder to control and would make the inward collapse worse.

In the first 10 m of a sprint, an athlete bounces upward with each step and produces little horizontal force. Which coaching cue is MOST appropriate?

1. Drive the knee forward and up
   Driving the knee up stresses vertical motion and can make the bouncing worse.
2. Stay tall with an upright torso
   An upright torso fits top-speed sprinting, while early acceleration needs a forward lean.
3. Push the ground back and away
   Cueing the athlete to push the ground back and away directs force horizontally, which is what early acceleration needs.

An athlete squats with the feet shoulder-width apart and the toes turned slightly out. Viewed from the front, which knee position at the bottom of the squat is correct?

1. Just inside the big toes
   Knees inside the big toes is valgus collapse, a fault rather than a target.
2. Tracking over the toes
   With the toes turned slightly out, the knees should track in line with the toes so the hip, knee and foot stay aligned.
3. Pointing straight forward
   Pointing the knees straight ahead while the feet turn out twists the knee joint.

During a forward lunge, an athlete's front knee travels well past the toes and the front heel lifts off the floor. Which correction is MOST appropriate?

1. Take a shorter step forward
   A shorter step drives the knee even further past the toes and makes the heel rise more.
2. Take a longer step forward
   A longer step puts the front shin closer to vertical, keeps the knee over the foot and lets the heel stay down.
3. Lean the trunk further forward
   Leaning forward shifts more weight onto the front of the foot and does not fix the step length.

Compared with the conventional deadlift, which change in technique occurs in the sumo deadlift?

1. A longer bar path
   The sumo stance shortens the bar path because the lifter starts lower and wider, so a longer path is wrong.
2. Less quadriceps involvement
   The more upright sumo position uses the quadriceps more, not less.
3. A more upright trunk
   The wide sumo stance lets the hips sit closer to the bar, so the trunk stays more upright than in the conventional deadlift.

An athlete is learning the push jerk. Which description of the dip is correct?

1. Short dip with an upright torso
   The push jerk dip is short and quick with the torso upright, so force goes straight up into the bar.
2. Slow dip with a pause at the bottom
   Pausing at the bottom of the dip loses the elastic rebound that drives the bar upward.
3. Deep dip with the hips pushed back
   A deep dip with the hips pushed back tips the torso forward and sends the bar out in front.

A novice athlete is learning the Romanian deadlift. Which movement should occur during the descent?

1. Back rounds to lower the bar farther
   Rounding the back to lower the bar further loads the spine in flexion, a technique fault.
2. Hips move back, knees slightly bent
   The Romanian deadlift is a hip hinge: the hips travel back while the knees stay slightly bent and the spine neutral.
3. Knees bend deeply, trunk stays upright
   Bending the knees deeply with an upright trunk turns the hinge into a squat.

Which plyometric drill is MOST specific to the force demands of the first steps of a sprint start?

1. Standing broad jump
   The standing broad jump drives the body forward from a static start, closest to the horizontal force of the first sprint steps.
2. Tuck jumps
   Tuck jumps are vertical and repeated in place, so they do not match the forward push of a start.
3. Depth jumps from an 18-in box
   Depth jumps from a box train vertical reactive strength, a poor match for horizontal acceleration.

During a back squat, an athlete's heels begin to rise before the thighs reach parallel. According to NSCA technique guidelines, where should the descent end?

1. Full depth, heels up
   Going to full depth with the heels up puts the athlete off balance with the knees driven too far forward.
2. Just before the heels rise
   The descent should stop just before the heels rise, which is the depth the athlete can control with good technique.
3. At parallel regardless
   Forcing the squat to parallel once the heels lift shifts the load forward and breaks down technique.

A strength and conditioning professional calculates the standardized (z-score) change in an athlete's weekly training load. What is the value, and how should it be interpreted?

1. 2.5 SD; an unusual spike
   (3,350 − 2,800) ÷ 220 = 2.5 SD above the baseline mean, an unusual spike in load.
2. 15.2 SD; an extreme outlier
   15.2 SD divides the current load by the SD rather than the change from baseline.
3. 0.2 SD; normal variation
   0.2 SD ignores the size of the change; the 550-AU rise is far beyond normal week-to-week variation.

An athlete's baseline 40-yd sprint was timed with electronic timing gates. At the 8-week retest, the only available staff member uses a handheld stopwatch, and the athlete appears 0.2 s faster. What is the MOST accurate interpretation?

1. A learning effect on the start
   Any learning effect on the start would be small and cannot be separated from a 0.2-s difference in timing method.
2. A true speed gain
   Calling it a true speed gain ignores the known bias between stopwatch and gate timing.
3. A timing-method bias
   Hand timing usually reads about 0.2 s faster than electronic gates, so the change in method alone can explain the result.

After a meaningful decline in performance, a strength and conditioning professional wants to retest the athlete every few days to track recovery. Which measure is MOST suitable for such frequent retesting?

1. 300-yd shuttle run time
   A 300-yd shuttle is exhausting and would add fatigue every time it is repeated.
2. 1RM back squat attempt
   A 1RM attempt is fatiguing and risky for an athlete already in decline, so it does not suit frequent retesting.
3. a countermovement jump
   A countermovement jump takes seconds, causes little fatigue and is sensitive to neuromuscular fatigue, so it can be repeated every few days.

A velocity device used for the back squat at 80% 1RM has a smallest detectable difference (SDD) of 0.06 m/s. Compared with last week, which decrease in mean velocity clearly exceeds the device's error and would justify reducing the load?

1. A decrease of 0.03 m/s
   A 0.03 m/s drop is only half the SDD and sits inside the device's error.
2. A decrease of 0.10 m/s
   A 0.10 m/s drop is well beyond the 0.06 m/s SDD, so it reflects a real loss of velocity rather than device error.
3. A decrease of 0.05 m/s
   A 0.05 m/s drop is below the 0.06 m/s SDD, so it cannot be separated from measurement error.

During a 1RM back squat test, the athlete has completed a light set of 5–10 reps and a second warm-up set of 3–5 reps. What is the next step of the NSCA protocol?

1. 2–3 reps after adding 30–40 lb
   For a lower-body lift the next step adds 30–40 lb (about 10–20%) for a near-maximal set of 2–3 reps.
2. a 1RM attempt after adding 60–80 lb
   Going straight to a 1RM attempt with a large jump skips the near-maximal step of the protocol.
3. 2–3 reps after adding 10–20 lb
   Adding 10–20 lb is the increment for upper-body lifts, too small for a squat.

A collegiate basketball player's weekly session-RPE loads are Week 1 = 2,400 AU, Week 2 = 2,350 AU, and Week 3 = 3,200 AU. What is the week-to-week percentage increase from Week 2 to Week 3?

1. About 27%
   About 27% divides the increase by Week 3's load instead of Week 2's.
2. About 36%
   (3,200 − 2,350) ÷ 2,350 × 100 is about 36%.
3. About 33%
   About 33% compares Week 3 with Week 1 instead of Week 2.

Over 3 weeks, a collegiate swimmer's 400-m time trial has worsened by 12%, with elevated resting heart rate, disrupted sleep, and persistent fatigue even though training volume was already reduced. What is the MOST appropriate action?

1. Deload week, reassess in 7 days
   Another deload has already failed to help, so repeating it delays finding a possible medical cause.
2. Refer for medical evaluation
   Performance that keeps falling, with high resting heart rate, poor sleep and fatigue even after volume was cut, calls for medical evaluation.
3. Monitor 1 more week, no change
   Waiting a week with no change ignores warning signs that have persisted for three weeks.

A coach is allotting floor space for a flat bench press station with a 6-ft (1.8-m) bench. The NSCA formula for lying exercises is (bench length + 3-ft safety cushion) × (7-ft user width + 3-ft safety cushion). How much area is needed?

1. 120 ft² (11.1 m²)
   120 ft² adds a 6-ft cushion to the bench length instead of 3 ft.
2. 90 ft² (8.4 m²)
   (6 ft + 3 ft) × (7 ft + 3 ft) = 9 × 10 = 90 ft² (8.4 m²).
3. 42 ft² (3.9 m²)
   42 ft² multiplies the bench length by the 7-ft user width and leaves out both safety cushions.

A football player with sickle cell trait is scheduled for repeated timed 300-yd shuttles on the first day of preseason. Which modification is MOST appropriate?

1. Progress gradually and allow longer rests
   Athletes with sickle cell trait are at risk of collapse during all-out efforts early in preseason, so conditioning progresses gradually with longer rests.
2. Keep the test but run it later in practice
   Moving the test later in practice adds fatigue before the all-out runs, which increases the risk.
3. Keep the shuttles but hydrate between runs
   Hydration is useful but does not remove the risk of repeated maximal shuttles on day one.

A coach plans a back squat session for 24 athletes. NSCA guidance allows no more than three athletes per bar or station. What is the minimum number of squat racks needed?

1. 12 racks
   Twelve racks would allow pairs, which is acceptable but more than the minimum asked for.
2. 6 racks
   Six racks put four athletes on each station, over the stated limit.
3. 8 racks
   With no more than three athletes per station, 24 ÷ 3 = 8 racks is the minimum.

A weight machine failed during use and injured an athlete. Before the machine returns to service, what is required?

1. A trial set by a staff member
   A trial set by staff puts a person on a machine that has not been cleared and is not an inspection.
2. A logged inspection clearing it as safe
   A machine that failed must pass a documented inspection before returning to service, so there is a record that it is safe.
3. A verbal check by the coach on duty
   A verbal check leaves no record and is not a proper inspection.

A coach is installing wall mirrors behind a row of dumbbell racks. Which mirror placement follows NSCA facility guidance?

1. 6 in (15 cm) from racks, 20 in (51 cm) off floor
   Mirrors go at least 6 in (15 cm) from racks and start at least 20 in (51 cm) above the floor, so rolling weights cannot reach the glass.
2. Flush against the racks, starting at floor level
   Mirrors flush against the racks and down to the floor are the most exposed to impact from equipment.
3. 20 in (51 cm) from racks, 6 in (15 cm) off floor
   Swapping the two distances leaves the bottom of the mirror low enough for rolling dumbbells and plates to hit it.

A strength and conditioning professional wants to use variable practice for an intermediate lifter's hang clean. Which approach applies it?

1. Cleans, jerks and squats in random order
   Mixing different lifts in random order is random practice of several skills, not variation within the hang clean.
2. Hang cleans from one height every set
   Starting from the same height every set is constant practice, with no variation in the skill.
3. Hang cleans from three hang heights
   Changing the start height varies the parameters of one skill, which is what variable practice means.